UPSC Prelims-2017 Special MCQ-1 (Polity)

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Q1 The Amending Act (1781) to the Regulating Act of 1773 had which of the following provisions?

  1. Increase in the jurisdiction of Supreme Court established by the Regulating Act 1773,
  2. Recognition of the appellate jurisdiction of the Governor-General-in-Council.
  3. Enactment of a temporary Uniform Civil Code.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Q2. Consider the following statements about the Act of 1909 which is also known as MorleyMinto Reforms.

  1. It introduced a system of communal representation.
  2. It provided for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
  3. It curtailed the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at the provincial level but increased the same at Central level.
  4. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by separating the central and provincial subjects.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. As per the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Governor-general of India was to be

a) Elected by the first Constituent Assembly or Central Legislative Assembly of India.

b) Appointed by the Viceroy on the advice of the executive council.

c) Appointed by the British Monarch on the advice of the dominion cabinet.

d) Nominated by the dominion cabinet based on the recommendation of the Viceroy.

Q4. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. As per the Plan

  1. Each province and princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
  2. Princely states could veto the resolutions passed in the Constituent assembly.
  3. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
  4. Community based representation was to be abolished in the constituent assembly.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q5. Which of the following was/were committees associated with the Constituent Assembly of India?

  1. Welfare State Ideals committee
  2. A States Committee for Negotiating with the States
  3. A provincial Constitution Committee

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Q6. Which of the following erstwhile provinces had the largest membership in the Constituent Assembly of India?

a) United Provinces

b) Madras

c) West Bengal

d) Bombay

Q7. Consider the following about the federal structure of India.

  1. The Indian federal structure is the result of an agreement between the states.
  2. All states have a legitimate right to secede from the federation by legislative means.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Q8. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. Which of the following is/are the major features of parliamentary government in India?

  1. Sovereignty of the Indian Parliament
  2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature and Judiciary
  3. Membership of the ministers in the legislature
  4. Presence of nominal and real executives
  5. Resolution of all Parliamentary disputes by the Judiciary

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 3 and 5 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q9. What do you understand by the statement, “The Directive principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the constitution are non-justiciable in nature”?

a) The courts cannot recognize the DPSP in their judgments.

b) DPSP cannot be enforced by law.

c) They are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.

d) All of (a), (b) and (c)

Q10. The value of secularism can be found in which of the following parts of the constitution?

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Duties
  4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q11. Which of the following matters is/are dealt by the Third Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
  2. Provisions for elections to the Parliament and state legislatures.
  3. Provisions relating to the privileges of dignitaries.
  4. Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for constitutional functionaries.
  5. Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 5 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 4 only

d) 2 and 5 only

Q12. Consider the following statements.

  1. Assertion (A): Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.
  2. Reason (R): Preamble is not considered as a part of the constitution.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

d) Both A and R are incorrect.

right-arrow-30Answers with Explanation will be provided with next MCQ Quiz. Kindly Post your answers below in Comment Box 💬

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  1. Reply
    February 19, 2017 at 6:46 am


  2. Reply
    February 19, 2017 at 7:43 am

    1b 2 3b 4 5D 6b 7D 8 9c 10d 11c 12d

  3. Reply
    February 19, 2017 at 9:13 am


  4. Reply Profile photo of
    February 19, 2017 at 5:38 pm

    Thank you everyone for your participation. Answers with Explanations were Uploaded here. Kindly check yours.

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